I AM puzzled by something which happened during the election last week.
As far as I am aware, any MP can sit for only one constituency, a district or town councillor likewise. The same applies to county councillors.
Why then, should it be that a parish councillor can sit on more than one parish council?
Provided, that is, that the two or possibly three councils are within four miles of each other!
The effect of this surely is obvious. Despite the fact that parish councils are supposed to be apolitical they are often ruled by one or the other party.
Therefore one ruling party on one parish council could rule a second, whichever party won that particular council seat.
Can any of your readers answer this conundrum?
Gerald K Smeaton,
Dam Lane,
Thorpe Willoughby,
Converted for the new archive on 30 June 2000. Some images and formatting may have been lost in the conversion.
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